During the past five years, in which I read a lot about fetishism in general and diapers in particular, there has always been a thing I don't completely understand about the definition. Sometimes, the definition of a fetish includes the claim that the stimulus (in our case, diapers) MUST be present to induce arousal to the fetishist.
In my case, this is not strictly true. Although there's no way at all I can ever deny that diapers turn me on, it's not the only thing. I'm still a heterosexual male, and a beautiful girl/woman without anything AB/DL-related at all can turn me on just as much. That being said - the ultimate turn-on for me would be, of course, a combination of the above!
Considering the above, I'm still pretty sure I have a diaper fetish. So did I misunderstand what having a fetish means, should the definition be altered, or am I just really weird? =P